In this one, Denis Rancourt voices the unpopular proposition that none of the observed unusual mortality could possibly be attributable to a particularly virulent pathogen at all:
He does seem to be good at making unpopular cases :) but what I'm really trying to point out is that he claims in this interview that the use of antibiotics was widely suppressed in the early stages of the scamdemic. Haven't gotten around to cross-check that, but that would be a rather important piece of intel.
12. The definition of "pandemic" was changed by WHO to eliminate reference to disease severity and lethality.
13. The definition of "vaccine" has been changed >3 times to accommodate these injections because government cannot give EUA for a "therapy" - because the patient must have a disease to get therapy. But vaccines are given to HEALTHY people and if a public health emergency is declared (correctly or incorrectly) those healthy people can be forced/coerced to be inject with the alleged drug "for the greater good" as long as it is classified as a vaccine.
14. No biological agent known as a virus has been isolated from a human who has the constellation of signs and symptoms of the disease called CV19. No bio laboratory in the world has a specimen of this alleged virus in a container. Is there a C19 "virus" as a natural biological agent at all? Why was so much known about the spike protein so early on? Why is the vaccine directed solely against the SP? Given that the nanoparticle, which is not biological, penetrates cells and that the SP is solely responsible for the disease, is it possible that the alleged virus is really a manufactured SP in a manufactured NP that may have been released by aerosol and absorbed through the skin of victims. Is that why the "vaccine" is directed to the SP and only the SP? Is that why the "vaccine" was allegedly manufactured so fast? Or was the "vaccine" already there all along? Is it possible that the "virus" is SP within a NP and that the "vaccine" is the mRNA for the SP in a NP?
I've heard a lot about illegal use of midazolam in UK. Do you know whether it was widely used elsewhere? It seems US gave preference to remdesivir. fyi, in France the drug used to sedate/euthanize the elderly = ritrovil. It may also have been used in other european countries. I believe France also supplied it to UK when they were running out, under Matt Hancock who was eager to provide the elderly a "good death". That's what he said during question time in parliament back in Apr-May2020 I think it was.
Amazing that Dem voters ...and RINOs vote for this lethal Administration which WILL do in their own family members...but then we should not be surprised for they care little about those innocent folks in failed Blue large cities taken down/disable by violent crime...totally lacking in humanity for sure...seems to define a Dem socialist...This insensitivity to their own relatives
A most powerful statement: “The shift from the productive sector that provides for food, health, wealth and happiness has been replaced with a destructive sector that maims and kills.”
Yes. I also wonder what use the Federal Reserve has been with its "enabling" - zero slowly rising to low - interest policy with inflation even now at 7%, when it should have set rates at 6% two years ago when Congress was trying to stuff dollar bills into a (supposedly) sick nation? The last thing I would want if I was feeling fine would be - "take this thousand bucks, and go to bed for two years"
Nice list, some good comments here too!
In this one, Denis Rancourt voices the unpopular proposition that none of the observed unusual mortality could possibly be attributable to a particularly virulent pathogen at all:
https://strongandfreecanada.org/iron-will/what-really-killed-millions-denis-rancourt/
He does seem to be good at making unpopular cases :) but what I'm really trying to point out is that he claims in this interview that the use of antibiotics was widely suppressed in the early stages of the scamdemic. Haven't gotten around to cross-check that, but that would be a rather important piece of intel.
TWO MORE CRITICAL POINTS THAT DESERVE MENTION:
12. The definition of "pandemic" was changed by WHO to eliminate reference to disease severity and lethality.
13. The definition of "vaccine" has been changed >3 times to accommodate these injections because government cannot give EUA for a "therapy" - because the patient must have a disease to get therapy. But vaccines are given to HEALTHY people and if a public health emergency is declared (correctly or incorrectly) those healthy people can be forced/coerced to be inject with the alleged drug "for the greater good" as long as it is classified as a vaccine.
14. No biological agent known as a virus has been isolated from a human who has the constellation of signs and symptoms of the disease called CV19. No bio laboratory in the world has a specimen of this alleged virus in a container. Is there a C19 "virus" as a natural biological agent at all? Why was so much known about the spike protein so early on? Why is the vaccine directed solely against the SP? Given that the nanoparticle, which is not biological, penetrates cells and that the SP is solely responsible for the disease, is it possible that the alleged virus is really a manufactured SP in a manufactured NP that may have been released by aerosol and absorbed through the skin of victims. Is that why the "vaccine" is directed to the SP and only the SP? Is that why the "vaccine" was allegedly manufactured so fast? Or was the "vaccine" already there all along? Is it possible that the "virus" is SP within a NP and that the "vaccine" is the mRNA for the SP in a NP?
WHAT? Not a tiny mention of the illegal use of Midazolam to kill the care home folk?
Hell on earth indeed. EVIL rules for sure.
Here Satanic agenda.
https://themillenniumreport.com/2021/06/heres-the-covid-game-plan-for-global-genocide-and-enslavement-of-humanity/
I've heard a lot about illegal use of midazolam in UK. Do you know whether it was widely used elsewhere? It seems US gave preference to remdesivir. fyi, in France the drug used to sedate/euthanize the elderly = ritrovil. It may also have been used in other european countries. I believe France also supplied it to UK when they were running out, under Matt Hancock who was eager to provide the elderly a "good death". That's what he said during question time in parliament back in Apr-May2020 I think it was.
Amazing that Dem voters ...and RINOs vote for this lethal Administration which WILL do in their own family members...but then we should not be surprised for they care little about those innocent folks in failed Blue large cities taken down/disable by violent crime...totally lacking in humanity for sure...seems to define a Dem socialist...This insensitivity to their own relatives
....expands to the rest of the World too!
You listed it all. Another question; Wht test kits and masks from/made in china?
It is still ongoing- there is no failed- we are still failing.
A most powerful statement: “The shift from the productive sector that provides for food, health, wealth and happiness has been replaced with a destructive sector that maims and kills.”
Yes. I also wonder what use the Federal Reserve has been with its "enabling" - zero slowly rising to low - interest policy with inflation even now at 7%, when it should have set rates at 6% two years ago when Congress was trying to stuff dollar bills into a (supposedly) sick nation? The last thing I would want if I was feeling fine would be - "take this thousand bucks, and go to bed for two years"
It’s an open question whether t hi s much incompetence truly can be explained by incompetence.
Not incompetence ever.
https://themillenniumreport.com/2021/06/heres-the-covid-game-plan-for-global-genocide-and-enslavement-of-humanity/